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1. Having established contact on a calling frequency it is good practice to:
(a) stay on the same frequency
(b) move to another frequency
(c) invite others to join in on the same frequency
(d) be objectionable to all others calling
Click to reveal the correct answer
2. The purpose of a terrestrial repeater is to
(a) increase satellite coverage
(b) increase the range of mobile stations
(c) increase the range of fixed stations
(d) minimise contacts by pedestrian stations
3. The Q-code for 'standby' is:
(a) QRN
(b) QRM
(c) QRS
(d) QRX
4. COIL using the phonetic alphabet would be:
(a) Charlie, Oscar, India, Lima
(b) Charlie, Ocean, Italy, Lima
(c) Coil, Oscar, Inductance, London
(d) Charlie, Oscar, Italy, London
5. The Band Plans should be observed because:
(a) they are mandatory
(b) they are governed by international regulations
(c) they are intended to aid operating
(d) they are only for novices
6. It is good safety practice to:
(a) use plastic piping for earthing
(b) unearth all metal cases
(c) have no master switch
(d) supply all mains power via a master switch
7. When calling a station it is good practice to:
(a) put your callsign first
(b) use your callsign only
(c) put the callsign of the station being called first
(d) use the callsign of the other station only
8. In the RST code T is for:
(a) temperature of PA stage
(b) tone
(c) time of transmission
(d) transmitter type
9. To prevent annoying other users on a band, a transmitter should always be tuned initially:
(a) on a harmonic outside the band
(b) into an antenna
(c) into a dummy load
(d) into a dipole
10. Two 10kW resistors are connected in parallel across a 5V DC supply. The total current taken is:
(a) 50mA
(b) 0.5mA
(c) 1mA
(d) 1 A
11. The diagram represents a trace on an oscilloscope. What is the frequency of the displayed waveform?
(a) 1kHz
(b) 5kHz
(c) 10kHz
(d) 100kHz
12. In the diagram in question 11, what is the peak to peak value of the waveform?
(a) 1V
(b) 2V
(c) 10V
(d) 20V
13. As the frequency rises, the reactance of an inductor:
(a) stays constant
(b) decreases
(c) increases
(d) does none of these
14. The resonant frequency of the circuit is:
(a) 1.59155kHz
(b) 15.9155kHz
(c) 159.155kHz
(d) 1591.55kHz
15. A power gain of 4 is equivalent to:
(a) 3dB
(b) 6dB
(c) 10dB
(d) 16dB
16. Which of the following represents the diode in a conducting condition?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
17. If the base potential of an NPN transistor is held at the emitter potential, the collector current will be:
(a) zero
(b) always 1A
(c) between 10mA and
(d) very high
18. The output impedance of an emitter-follower buffer amplifier is:
(a) infinite
(b) very high
(c) zero
(d) fairly low
19. The circuit shown below depicts:
(a) an audio amplifier
(b) an RF amplifier
(c) a mixer
(d) a BFO
20. The circuit in question 19 operates in:
(a) Class A
(b) Class AB
(c) Class B
(d) Class C
21. Integrated circuits that performs logic functions with binary signals are classified as:
(a) linear circuits
(b) linear amplifiers
(c) analogue mixers
(d) digital circuits
22. The trace shown below is from a power supply. The ripple is:
(a) 1 V
(b) 3V
(c) 12V
(d) 15V
23. The frequency difference between the wanted RF signal and the so-called second channel is:
(a) twice the third IF
(b) twice the wanted RF
(c) twice the first IF
(d) the wanted RF plus the first IF
24. In a direct-conversion receiver, the local oscillator is:
(a) very much higher than the received signal
(b) very much lower than the received signal
(c) always at 10.7MHz
(d) very close to that of the received frequency
25. The squelch in a receiver is operated by:
(a) the VFO
(b) the power supply
(c) the heterodyne oscillator
(d) either the IF or AF signal
26. The effect of the AGC on receipt of a very strong incoming signal is to:
(a) reduce the VFO output
(b) reduce the gain of the RF and IF amplifiers
(c) reduce the power supply voltage
(d) reduce a filter response
27. A high first IF allows easier filtering to prevent:
(a) power supply ripple
(b) local oscillator breakthrough
(c) second-channel interference
(d) second IF breakthrough
28. The principal outputs from the following circuit are:
(a) 9 and 39MHz
(b) 9 and 69MHz
(c) 30 and 39MHz
(d) 39 and 69MHz
29. In order to demodulate CW transmissions in an AM-only receiver, which of the following is required?
(a) a BFO
(b) an FM detector
(c) a crystal multiplier
(d) a morse key
30. The coil determining the frequency of a transmitter VFO should be:
(a) air cored with no former
(b) air cored and tightly wound on a former
(c) air cored and loosely wound on a former
(d) wound on a metallic former
31. To produce double sideband, suppressed carrier signal, which of the following should be used?
(a) a balanced mixer
(b) a crystal filter
(c) a single transistor mixer
(d) a single diode mixer
32. The following represents a CW transmitter. Ideally, keying should be applied at:
33. The output power from an FM transmitter:
(a) is constant irrespective of modulation
(b) varies with modulation
(c) is zero with no modulation
(d) reduces to 50% with modulation
34. The output amplifier of an SSB transmitter must:
(a) act as a switch
(b) be in a linear mode
(c) be in a non-linear mode
(d) act as a multiplier
35. In the following circuit arrangement, to give an output of 145.000MHz, the crystal oscillator is at:
(a) 10.7142MHz
(b) 12.08333MHz
(c) 72.5000MHz
(d) 145.000MHz
36. If a transmitter output impedance is 50W, for optimum power transfer the load should be:
(a) 50W
(b) 75W
(c) 100W
(d) 150W
37. The RF spectrum required to transmit an SSB signal is:
(a) half the modulating signal bandwidth
(b) the same as the modulating signal bandwidth
(c) twice the modulating signal bandwidth
(d) zero
38. The wavelength of a signal of 100MHz in free space is:.
(a) 30mm
(b) 0.3m
(c) 3.0m
(d) 30m
39. In order to radiate, an electromagnetic wave must have:
(a) E field only
(b) H field only
(c) E and H field
(d) air to travel in
40. Polarisation of an electromagnetic wave is fixed by:.
(a) the direction of the H field
(b) the direction of propagation
(c) by an anti-phase signal
(d) the orientation of the transmitting antenna
41. The signals returned from the layers above the earth are referred to as:
(a) the ground wave
(b) the ionospheric wave
(c) the tropospheric wave
(d) the direct wave
42. As frequency increases, the ionisation to reflect a signal back to the earth must:.
(a) decrease
(b) go to zero
(c) not change
(d) increase
43. Fading can be caused by:.
(a) a poor antenna
(b) horizontal polarisation
(c) interaction of the sky and ground wave
(d) poor coaxial cable
44. A transmission line is said to be perfectly matched when it is terminated by a resistance equal to:
(a) half the characteristic impedance
(b) twice the characteristic impedance
(c) an open-circuit
(d) the characteristic impedance
45. The following antenna represents:
(a) an end-fed wire
(b) a simple dipole
(c) a cubical quad
(d) a trap dipole
46. The addition of reflectors and a director to a folded dipole:.
(a) raises its impedance
(b) has no effect on its impedance
(c) lowers its impedance
(d) produces no directivity
47. The typical accuracy of a moving coil meter is:.
(a) 0.03%
(b) 0.3%
(c) 3%
(d) 10%
48. A dummy load for use at VHF should be made from:.
(a) wire-wound resistors
(b) carbon resistors
(c) metal oxide resistors
(d) electric-fire heating elements
49. To measure DC input power to a final amplifier, various meters are used. Those necessary are:
(a) voltmeter at A, ammeter at B
(b) voltmeter at A, ammeter at C
(c) voltmeter at C, ammeter at A
(d) voltmeter at C, ammeter at B
50. The action of the so-called 'dip oscillator' depends on:
(a) extraction of energy from the tuned circuit on test
(b) extraction of energy from the dip oscillator by circuit under test
(c) radiation from a nearby transmitter
(d) the tuned circuit on test changing the dip oscillator frequency
51. The following represents the output of a digital frequency counter. What does the digit at X signify?
(a) hertz
(b) tens of hertz
(c) hundreds of hertz
(d) thousands of hertz
52. The coaxial cable from an SWR meter to an antenna develops a fault so that so that no power reaches the antenna the SWR meter will read:
(b) 1:1
(c) high
(d) very low
53. Which of the following would be used to examine the shape of a waveform?
(a) an oscilloscope
(b) an absorption wavemeter
(c) a digital frequency counter
(d) a dip meter
54. For accurate frequency measurement, which of the following instruments would be used?.
(a) an absorption wavemeter
(b) an oscilloscope
(c) a moving-coil multimeter
(d) a digital frequency counter
55. When measuring frequency in the above equipment, the probe should preferably be placed at:
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